umlaut

[Andreas Stolcke]

In article <15200 at iuvax.cs.indiana.edu> bondc at iuvax.UUCP (Clay M Bond) writes:
>
>>Bussmann's dictionary states that the original umlaut (the initial
>>assimilation) is indeed an all-germanic phenomenon, i.e. occurred
>>independently in all germanic languages. Again, due to later
>
>No, absolutely not.  One of the distinguishing hallmarks of the Eastern
>Germanic languages (Gothic) was that it had no umlaut.  However, most
>Germanicists (and their articles) use the phrase "all Germanic languages"
>(or words to that effect), when in fact they mean, "all North and West
>Germanic languages."  Why, I wonder, is Wulfila so ignored?  :-)
>
You're right, of course. Bussmann actually gives Gothic as an exception,
it was just negligence on my part.

--
Andreas Stolcke
(stolcke at ernie.Berkeley.EDU)

--
Andreas Stolcke
(stolcke at ernie.Berkeley.EDU)